Tuesday, September 13, 2011

How to write good answer in CSE main examinations

5:29 AM akhilesh No comments

Civil Services mains examination is the most crucial stage of the IAS examination because it carries a huge weightage in term of total tally of marks. And in this General Studies & Essay papers play an important role for the selection of the candidate. As the mains examination is subjective in nature, So candidates have to develop a proper Writing Strategy to get good marks in the examination. Here one should follow these points before writing the General Studies paper:

1. Write precisely and to the point.
2. Respect the economy of words
3. Show the depth of understanding of the question.
4. Different question requires different style of writing so understand the requirement and follow that.
5. It is suggested to attempt all questions keeping in view the word limit.
6. Make rough work before answer writing.
7. Allocate your time for different sections of the General Studies Paper.

In this context let me discuss some key words which examiner uses in the General Studies question and expect from you to answer accordingly, it is important for you to understand the broad meaning of these words:

Comments: It is to give opinion/remark, on a person/topic etc.

Analyse: To look into different dimension of the statement and draw various facts to support those dimension basically it is examining of different part of the question that can be done by raising various alternatives of the given question and providing their appropriate solution.

Examine: It is simply looking into the question closely and raise various aspects to the statement

Explain: Just explain the statement in a more lucid term, so that any one can understand the meaning and concept of the given statement.

Discuss: Here examiner assume that you know something in advance now you have to tell the meaning and your point of view of the given statement with reason and logic.

At last I should recommend one thing to the candidates that no matter how much you study you should develop the habit of answer writing regularly.

Civil Services : Strategy For Preparing Public Administration

5:27 AM akhilesh No comments

The questions might seem indirect and vague, but with good basic clarity any question can be attempted. In recent times, the long questions are being asked directly. The examiner only expects you to write a simple logical answer with clarity.

    * Do not try to remember too many quotations as it is difficult to reproduce.

    * The introduction and conclusions should be written well

    * Do not read all the books from end-to-end. Prepare topic wise in a comprehensive manner. The main priority should be given to gain the basic clarity.

    * Practise well the previous years' papers.

    * Use examples, contemporary relevance, case studies, flow diagrams etc.

    * Before answering a question the key words that occur in the questions should be observed carefully and the answer should be framed accordingly.

    * Explain meaning of keyword and explain correlation of keywords with the understanding of entire sentence.

    * Recognise the context of your question.

    * For elaboration recognize the statement-giver.

    * The diagram should be explained if any and should not be left unexplained.

    * Update your answer and in one answer itself ,you may be required to form linkages from five to six topics.

"IAS-CSAT" is very helpful in IAS Preliminary Paper - II

5:25 AM akhilesh No comments

Comprehension:
1. For Basics read Newspaper articles, Journals and magazine.
2. Then go for 'Comprehension' section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.

Interpersonal skills including communication skills:
1. For all level read 'Interpersonal skills including communication skills' section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.

OR

For all level read 'Interpersonal skills including communication skills' section of 'CSAT Guide' by TMH.

Logical reasoning and analytical ability
1. For basics read 'Logical reasoning and analytical ability' section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. For Intermediate level read 'Logical reasoning and analytical ability' of UPSCPORTAL Publication
3. For advanced level read 'Analytical Reasoning' by M. K. Pandey-BSC Publications.

Decision making and problem solving:
1. For all level read 'Decision making and problem solving'section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. 'Problem Solving' by K. Kundan

General mental ability:
1. It is nothing new for old IAS aspirants because it was in the old GS Preliminary syllabus.
2. For basics read 'General mental ability'section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
3. For Intermediate level read 'Basic numeracy and General mental ability' of UPSCPORTAL Publication
4. For advanced level read 'Magical Maths' by M. Tyra-BSC Publications

Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc. (Class X level) including Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. - Class X level
1. For basics read 'Basic numeracy' section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh.
2. For Intermediate level read 'Basic numeracy and General mental ability' of UPSCPORTAL Publication.
3. For advanced level read 'Magical Maths' by M. Tyra-BSC Publications.

English language comprehension skills (Class X level)
1. For basics read 'English language comprehension skills' of UPSCPORTAL Publication.
For all level read 'English language comprehension skills' section of 'CSAT Comprehensive Manual' edited by Vivek Kumar Singh

2. For basics read 'English Grammar and Usage' of UPSCPORTAL Publication.
For advanced level read 'English Grammar, Composition and Usage' by Wren and Martin / Nesfield.

NOTE:-
(a) Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
(b) The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.
(c) The prospective candidates are advised to note that no changes are being introduce at this stage in the Civil Services (Main) Examination and Personality Test in the scheme of Civil Services Examination (CSE).

Nuclear Power Growth in India

5:22 AM akhilesh No comments

India, being a non-signatory of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, has been subjected to a defacto nuclear embargo from members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) cartel. This has prevented India from obtaining commercial nuclear fuel, nuclear power plant components and services from the international market, thereby forcing India to develop its own fuel, components and services for nuclear power generation. The NSG embargo has had both negative and positive consequences for India's Nuclear Industry.

On one hand, the NSG regime has constrained India from freely importing nuclear fuel at the volume and cost levels it would like to support the country's goals of expanding its nuclear power gen- "When the agreement goes through, India is expected to generate an additional 25,000 MW of nuclear power by 2020, bringing total estimated nuclear power generation to 45,000 MW." By: Ram Kumar Pandey eration capacity to at least 20,000 MW by 2020. Also, by precluding India from taking advantage of the economies of scale and safety innovations of the global nuclear industry, the NSG regime has driven up the capital and operating costs and damaged the achievable safety potential of Indian nuclear power plants.

On the other hand, the NSG embargo has forced the Indian government and bureaucracy to support and actively fund the development of Indian nuclear technologies and industrial capacities in all key areas required to create and maintain a domestic nuclear industry. This has resulted in the creation of a large pool of nuclear scientists, engineers and technicians that have developed new and unique innovations in the areas of Fast Breeder Reactors, Thermal Breeder Reactors, the Thorium fuel cycle, nuclear fuel reprocessing and Tritium extraction & production.

Ironically, had the NSG sanctions not been in place, it would have been far more cost effective for India to import foreign nuclear power plants and nuclear fuels than to fund the development of Indian nuclear power generation technology, building of India's own nuclear reactors, and the development of domestic uranium mining, milling and refining capacity.

The Indian nuclear power industry is expected to undergo a significant expansion in the coming years thanks in part to the passing of The Indo-US nuclear deal. This agreement will allow India to carry out trade of nuclear fuel and technologies with other countries and significantly enhance its power generation capacity. when the agreement goes through, India is expected to generate an additional 25,000 MW of nuclear power by 2020, bringing total estimated nuclear power generation to 45,000 MW.

India has already been using imported enriched uranium and are currently under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards, but it has developed various aspects of the nuclear fuel cycle to support its reactors. Development of select technologies has been strongly affected by limited imports. Use of heavy water reactors has been particularly attractive for the nation because it allows Uranium to be burnt with little to no enrichment capabilities.

India has also done a great amount of work in the development of a Thorium centered fuel cycle. While Uranium deposits in the nation are limited there are much greater reserves of Thorium and it could provide hundreds of times the energy with the same mass of fuel. The fact that Thorium can theoretically be utilized in heavy water reactors has tied the development of the two. A prototype reactor that would burn Uranium-Plutonium fuel while irradiating a Thorium blanket is under construction at the Madras/ Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station.

Uranium used for the weapons program has been separate from the power program, using Uranium from indigenous reserves. This domestic reserve of 80,000 to 112,000 tons of uranium (approx 1% of global uranium reserves) is large enough to supply all of India's commercial and military reactors as well as supply all the needs of India's nuclear weapons arsenal. Currently, India's nuclear power reactors consume, at most, 478 metric tonnes of uranium per year. Even if India were quadruple its nuclear power output (and reactor base) to 20GW by 2020, nuclear power generation would only consume 2000 metric tonnes of uranium per annum.

Based on India's known commercially viable reserves of 80,000 to 112,000 tons of uranium, this represents a 40 to 50 years uranium supply for India's nuclear power reactors (note with reprocessing and breeder reactor technology, this supply could be stretched out many times over). Furthermore, the uranium requirements of India's Nuclear Arsenal are only a fifteenth (1/15) of that required for power generation (approx. 32 tonnes), meaning that India's domestic fissile material supply is more than enough to meet all needs for it strategic nuclear arsenal. Therefore, India has sufficient uranium resources to meet its strategic and power requirements for the foreseeable future.

Salient Milestones of Atomic Energy in India

5:20 AM akhilesh No comments

� March. 12, 1944 : Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha writes to Sir Dorabji Tata Trust for starting Nuclear Research in India

� December 19, 1945 : Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) Mumbai is inaugurated.

� April 15, 1948 : Atomic Energy Act is passed

� August 10, 1948 : Atomic Energy Commission is constituted

� July 29,1949 : Rare Minerals Survey Unit brought under Atomic Energy Commission and named as 'Raw Materials Division' (RMD), with Headquarters at New Delhi. In 1958, this unit becomes Atomic Minerals Division (AMD), and later in 1974, shifts to Hyderabad. It is renamed as Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD) on July 29, 1998.

� August 18, 1950 : Indian Rare Earths Limited (IRE), owned by the Government of India and Government of Travancore, Cochine, is set up for recovering minerals, processing of rare earths compounds and Thorium - Uranium concentrates. In 1963, IRE becomes a full-fledged government undertaking under DAE

� April 1951: Uranium Deposit at Jaduguda is discovered by AMD. Drilling operations commence in December 1951.

� December 24, 1952 : Rare Earths Plant of IRE at Alwaye, Kerala, is dedicated to the nation and production of Rare Earths & Thorium - Uranium concentrate commences.

� August 03, 1954 : Department of Atomic Energy is created.

� August 01, 1955 : Thorium Plant at Trombay goes into production. Thorium Plant at Trombay is closed.

� 1956 : AMD discovers uranium mineralisation at Umra, Rajasthan.

� August 04, 1956 :APSARA - first research reactor in Asia, attains criticality at Trombay, Mumbai.

� January 20, 1957 : Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (AEET) is inaugurated

� August 19, 1957 : AEET Training School starts functioning at Trombay.

� January 30, 1959 :Uranium Metal Plant at Trombay produces Uranium.

� February 19, 1960 : First lot of 10 Fuel Elements for CIRUS reactor, is fabricated at Trombay

� July 10, 1960 : CIRUS � the 40 MWt research reactor, attains criticality. After its successful refurbishment, the reactor was dedicated to the Nation on October 31, 2002.

� January 14, 1961 : Research Reactor ZERLINA attains criticality. (It is decommissioned in 1983).

� 1965: IRE takes over operation of Mineral Processing Unit at Manavalakurichi in TamilNadu and at Chavara in Kerala.

� January 22, 1965 : Plutonium Plant is inaugurated at Trombay. � January 22, 1967 : AEET is named as Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).

� April 11, 1967 : Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) is set up at Hyderabad for producing electronic systems, instruments and components.

� June 1, 1967 : Power Projects Engineering Division (PPED), Mumbai is formed. The Division is subsequently converted to Nuclear Power Board on August 17, 1984.

� October 4, 1967: Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL) is established with head quarters at Jaduguda Mines in Jharkhand (then Bihar).

� May 1968: Uranium Mill at Jaduguda, with a capacity of 1,000 TPD, commences commercial production ofMagnesium diuranate (yellow cake). Jaduguda Mine Shaft is commissioned in November
1968.

� December 31, 1968 : Nuclear Fuel Complex is set up at Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh.

� March 12, 1969 : Reactor Research Centre (RRC) starts at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. The Centre is fully established in 1971. It is named as Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) on December 18, 1985.

� May 01, 1969 : Heavy Water Projects is constituted at Mumbai. This later becomes Heavy Water Board.

� October 02, 1969 : Tarapur Atomic Power Station starts commercial operation.

� 1970 : AMD hands over the Uranium Deposit at Narwapahar to UCIL.

� September 06, 1970 : Uranium-233 is separated from irradiated Thorium

� February 18, 1971 : Plutonium fuel for Research Reactor PURNIMA-I is fabricated at Trombay.

� 1972 : AMD hands over the beach sand heavy mineral deposits of Chhatrapur, Orissa and Neendakara-Kayankulam, Kerala to IRE.

� February 3, 1972 : DAE Safety Review Committee is formed.

� May 18, 1972 : Research Reactor PURNIMA-I attains criticality.

� November 30, 1972 : Unit-1 of Rajasthan Atomic Power Station at Rawatbhatta, near Kota, Rajasthan, begins commercial operation. Unit II goes commercial on November 1, 1980.

� 1974: By-product Recovery Plant of UCIL at Jaduguda is commissioned.

� May 18, 1974 : Peaceful underground Nuclear Experiment is conducted at Pokhran, Rajasthan.

� March 1975 : Commercial production of Uranium Mineral Concentrates from Copper plant tailings at Surda, Hindustan Copper Limited commenced.

� May 1975 : Commercial production of by-products -Molybdenumand Copper concentrates starts.

� September 1975 : Surda Uranium Recovery Plant of UCIL is commissioned.

� June 16, 1977 : Variable Energy Cyclotron becomes operational at Kolkata.

� 1978 : High-sensitivity airborne spectrometric and magneto metric surveys started.

� 1979 : AMD hands over Bhatin and Turamdih (East) uranium deposits (now in Jharkhand State) to UCIL.

� Nov 18, 1979 : Plutonium-Uranium Mixed Oxide (MoX) fuel is fabricated at Trombay.

� November 19, 1982 : BARC's Power Reactor Fuel Reprocessing Plant at Tarapur is commissioned.

� 1983 : Fbtr attains first criticality.

� February 1983 : Rakha Uranium Recovery Plant of UCIL is commissioned.

� November 15, 1983 : Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) in Mumbai is constituted.

� 1984 : Sandstone-type uranium deposit at Domiasiat, Meghalaya is discovered.

� January 27, 1984 : Madras Atomic Power Station - Unit I at Kalpakkam starts commercial operation. Unit II goes commercial on March 21, 1986.

� February 19, 1984 : Centre for Advanced Technology (CAT) at Indore (Madhya Pradesh) is inaugurated.

� March 08, 1984 : Plutonium - Uranium mixed Carbide Fuel for Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) is fabricated at Trombay.

� May 10, 1984 : Research Reactor PURNIMAII, a Uranium-233 fuelled homogenous reactor, attains criticality.

� 1985 : AMD hands over the Bodal uranium deposit to UCIL.

� March 05, 1985 : Waste Immobilisation Plant (WIP) at Tarapur is commissioned. August 08, 1985 : Research Reactor DHRUVA (100 MWt) attains criticality. It attains full power on January 17, 1988. October 18, 1985 : FBTR at IGCAR attains criticality.

� 1986 : Dredge Mining, Mineral Separation and Synthetic Rutile Plant at OSCOM, Chhatrapur, Orissa is commissioned by IRE. HERO Project at Alwaye, Kerala, is commissioned. Production is started at OSCOM.

� October 1986 : Bhatin Mine is commissioned by UCIL and the ore is transported to Jaduguda mill for processing.

� December 1986 : Mosaboni Uranium Recovery Plant of UCIL is commissioned.

� 1987 : AMD hands over Turamdih (West) uranium deposits to UCIL, and beach sand deposits in Tamil Nadu to IRE.

� September 17, 1987 : Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is formed by converting the erstwhile Nuclear Power Board.

� 1988 : AMD hands over the Kuttumangalam and Vettumadia sand deposits, Tamil Nadu to IRE.

� December 30, 1988 : 12 MV Pelletron Accelerator is inaugurated in Mumbai. The accelerator is a joint endeavour of BARC & TIFR.

� 1989 : AMD Training School is inaugurated. Board of Radiation and Isotope Technology (BRIT) is constituted.

� January 3, 1989 : Regional Radiation Medicine Centre (RRMC) is inaugurated at Kolkata.

� March 12, 1989 : Narora Atomic Power Station Unit I attains criticality. Its Unit II attains criticality on October 24, 1991.

� 1990 : Dolostone -hosted uraniummineralisation in the western margin of Cuddapah basin is discovered. Mineral Research Development Centre (MRDC) of IRE is launched at Kollam. HERO Plant is commissioned at Alwaye. Dredge & Wet Concentrator Plant at Chavara, Kerala, is commissioned.

� November 09, 1990 : Research Reactor PURNIMA-III, a Uranium-233 fuelled reactor, attains criticality.

� 1991: AMD discovers uranium mineralisation at Lambapur, Nalgonda district, Andhra Pradesh and produces upgraded xenotime concentrate at 'Pre-concentrate Upgradation Plant' (PUP) at Kunkuri.

� May 16, 1991: First ECR heavy ion source of the country becomes operational at the Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre.

� 1992 : First remotely operated radiography camera is launched. Significant heavy mineral concentration along the East Coast, Andhra Pradesh, is identified. New Thorium Plant at OSCOM, Chhattrapur, Orissa is commissioned by IRE.

� September 03, 1992 : Kakrapar Atomic Power Station - Unit I attains criticality. Its Unit II attains criticality on January 08, 1995

� 1993 : BARC supplies one millionth radioisotope consignment.

� 1995 : Research Irradiator Gamma Chamber 5000 is launched by BRIT.

� January 1995 : Narwapaharmine is inaugurated.

� 1996 : 30kWt Kamini Reactor attains criticality. The reactor is taken to full power in September, 1997.

� March 27, 1996 : Kalpakkam Reprocessing Plant (KARP) is cold commissioned. KARP is dedicated to the nation on September 15,1998.

� October 20, 1996 : Kalpakkam Mini Reactor (KAMINI), with Uranium-233 fuel, attains criticality at IGCAR, Tamilnadu.

� 1997 : AMD discovers of uraniummineralisation in brecciated limestone at Gogi, Gulbarga district, Karnataka in the Bhima basin. Microzir Plant is commissioned in Chavra, Kerala.

� March. 31, 1997 : Rajasthan Atomic Power Station Unit-1 is re-commissioned.

� December 1997: Jaduguda Mill is expanded to treat 2,090 tonnes ore per day. PRYNCE (95% NeodymiumOxide) Plant is commissioned at Rare Earths Division.

� May 11 & 13, 1998 : Five underground nuclear tests are conducted at Pokhran Range, Rajasthan.

� May 27, 1998 : Rajasthan Atomic Power Station Unit-2 is re-commissioned after enmasse replacement of coolant channels.

� August 10, 1998 : The 500 keV industrial electron accelerator developed indigenously by the BARC is commissioned for its first phase of operation. Ammonium diuranate (ADU) production commences at Rare Earths Division of IRE at Alwaye, Kerala.

� April 22, 1999 : 450 MeV Synchrotron Radiation Source Indus-1 achieves electron beam current of 113 milli-ampere superceding the design value of 100 milli-ampere.

� July 1999 : Solid Storage and Surveillance Facility (S3F) is commissioned at Tarapur. September 24, 1999 : Unit-2 of Kaiga Atomic Power Station attains criticality. It is synchronised to the grid on December 02, 1999, and becomes commercial on March 16, 2000.

� December 24, 1999 : Unit-3 of Rajasthan Atomic Power Station attains criticality. It is synchronised to the grid on March 10, 2000, and becomes commercial on June 2, 2000.

� January 1, 2000 : BRIT's Radiation Processing Plant at Vashi, Navi Mumbai is commissioned. 2000 : Boron Enrichment Plant is commissioned at IGCAR, Kalpakkam.

� March 8, 2000 : Tarapur Atomic Power Project �3&4 rises up.

� March, 2000 & May 2000 : First concrete pour of Unit-3 and Unit-4 of Tarapur Atomic Power Project-3 & 4.

� April 21, 2000 : Folded Tandem Ion Accelerator (FOTIA) at Trombay delivers first beamon target.

� September 26, 2000 : Unit-1 of Kaiga Atomic Power station attains criticality. It synchronises to the grid on October 12, 2000.

� November 03, 2000 : Unit-4 of Rajasthan Atomic Power station attains criticality. It creates history by synchronising with the grid within a period of 14 days on November 17, 2000. The unit becomes commercial on December 23, 2000.

� November 16, 2000 : Unit - 1 of Kaiga Atomic Power Station becomes commercial. 2001 : FBTR fuel reaches burn up of 100,000MWd/ T.

� March 18, 2001: Units 3& 4 of Rajasthan Atomic Power Stations dedicated to the nation.

� February 12, 2002 : India signs the biggest contract with the Russian Federation for the Nuclear Power Station at Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu. March

� 30 & May 10, 2002 : First pours of concrete respectively of Unit-3 and Unit-4 of Kaiga Atomic Power Project 3 & 4.

� March 31, 2002 : First pour of concrete of Units 1&2 of Kudankulam Atomic Power Project.

� September 18, 2002 : First pour of concrete of Unit-5 of Rajasthan Atomic Power Project 5 & 6

� October 31, 2002 :Waste Immobilisation Plant and Uranium-Thorium Separation Plant at (both at Trombay), and the Radiation Processing Plant Krushak at Lasalgaon, district Nasik, Maharashtra, are dedicated to the Nation.

� November 2002 : UCIL's Turamdih Mine, Jharkhand is inaugurated and Technology Demonstration Pilot Plant becomes operational at Jaduguda.

� 2003 : 1.7 MeV Tandetron Accelerator and the demo facility LeadMini Cell (LMC), for reprocessing of FBTR carbide fuel on lab scale, are commissioned at IGCAR.

� 06-March-2005 : India's first 540MWe Nuclear Power Reactor Tarapur Unit 4 Attains Criticality.

� 04-June-2005 : TAPS 4 synchronised to the grid

Current Affairs Quiz

8:11 AM akhilesh No comments

Current Affairs Quiz

Congratulations to all of you as we add this new resource to help you do better in your UPSC IAS exams. We shall be giving updated Current Affairs Quizzes that will include 2010 General Knowledge, Current Affairs Gk Questions and more. The Current Affairs Quiz will help you refresh your memory on current affairs of India and the world targetted at getting you ready for the UPSC exam. This 2010 General Knowledge Quiz will updated on monthly basis.

June Quiz

1. Which of the following days in July is celebrated as Kargil Vijay Diwas to mark the Indian victory in the Kargil war back in 1999?
30 July
31 July
26 July

2. This Sikkim high court Chief facing impeachment on charges of corruption and judicial misconduct resigned on 29 July 2011. Identify him ?
Justice Paul
Justice PD Dinakaran
Justice Soumitra Sen

3. Who was elected Karnataka's 26th chief minister by BJP's legislator on 3 August 2011 ?
B S Yeddyurappa
D V Sadananda Gowda
Dr. V S Acharya

4. Restoration work on which of the following tombs in New Delhi led to the discovery of the country's oldest sunken garden ?
Isa Khan's tomb
Humayun’s tomb
Safdarjang tomb

5. The foreign minister of Libya, Abdel Aati Al Obeidi visited India to brief about latest developments in his nation. What was the name of visiting Libyan foreign minister?
Abdel Aati Al Obeidi
Hosni Mubarak
Hina Rabbani Khar

6. President of India Pratibha Patil Visited South Korea as Part of ___?
India’s Look East Policy
India’s Look West Policy
India’s Look North Policy

7.Italy Approved a Draft Law Banning Women from Wearing Veils in Public. Besides Italy, which other nations have banned women from wearing veil in Public ?
India and Pakistan
China and Afghanistan
Belgium and France

8. Which State government recently decided to provide bicycles to ASHA activists to boost rural health services ?
Madhya Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar

9. NSSF was approved by the Union Cabinet of India on 28 July 2011. NSSF stands for__
National Social Security Fund
National Services Security Fund
National Social Services Fund

10. The Government Set up NATGRID to Access all Intelligence Data. Consider the following statements on NATGRID. i) NATGRID has been formed to link databases for inputs to combat terrorism. ii) It is meant to improve India’s capability to counter threats to its internal security. Choose the right option:
Both i and ii are correct
Only i is correct.
Only ii is correct

Score =

Correct answers:

(RESULT) UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam (CSAT) 2011

6:33 AM akhilesh No comments

Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2011
परिणाम सिविल सेवा प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2011

( PRESS NOTE )

On the basis of the result of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 held on 12.06.2011, the candidates with the following Roll Numbers have qualified for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011.

The candidature of these candidates is provisional. In accordance with the Rules of the Examination, all these candidates have to apply again in the Detailed Application Form (DAF), which is available on the website of the Union Public Service Commission www. upsc.gov.in or "www. upsconline.nic.in/daf/mainmenu.php". All the qualified candidates are advised to fill up the DAF and submit the same ONLINE for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011 to be held from 29.10.2011. The DAF will be available on the website of the Commission till 11.59 PM on 1.9.2011. Important instructions regarding filling up of the DAF and submitting the same ONLINE to the Commission are also available on the website. The candidates who have been declared successful have to first get themselves registered on the relevant page of the website before filling up the ONLINE Detailed Application Form. The qualified candidates are further advised to refer to the Rules of the Civil Services Examination, 2011 published in the gazette of India (Extraordinary) vide Department of Personnel and Training notification F. No.13018/3/2011-AIS(I), dated 19.2.2011, which is also available on the website of the Commission.

After submitting the DAF duly filled in ONLINE, the candidates are required to take out a print out of the finally submitted DAF separately and will have to send the printed copy of the DAF duly signed by the candidates alongwith all relevant documents including the prescribed fees, wherever applicable as enclosures addressed to the Under Secretary [CS(M)], Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069, so as to reach the Commission's Office latest by 09.09.2011. The envelope containing the print out of the DAF submitted ONLINE should be superscribed �Application for Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011�. It can also be delivered at Union Public Service Commission counter by hand till 09.09.2011 (5.00 P.M). It may be noted that mere submission of application form does not, ipso facto, confer on any right for admission to the Main Examination. The admission certificate alongwith the time table of the Main Examination will be issued to the eligible candidates 2-3 weeks before the commencement of the examination. Changes, if any, in the postal address after submission of the DAF may be communicated to the Commission at once.

The Union Public Service Commission have a Facilitation Counter near the Examination Hall Building in its Campus. Candidates may obtain any information/clarification regarding their result of the above mentioned examination on all working days between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM, in person or on Tel. No. 011-23385271, 011-23098543 or 011-23381125 from this Facilitation Counter.

Candidates can also obtain information regarding their result by accessing Union Public Service Commission Website www.upsc.gov.in or http://upsconline.nic.in/daf/mainmenu.php
The result of Roll Nos.000797, 000957, 003533, 004994, 052161, 062662, 110670, 233449 & 257379 has been withheld.

Written Result Query
लिखित परिणाम सम्बंधित कुएरी

CLICK HERE FOR MARKS

Sample Questions For IAS - DISTANCE & SPEED

3:05 AM akhilesh No comments

Notes

Speed

$Speed = \frac{distance}{time}$

Two objects A and B moving at speeds $v_{A}$ and $v_{B}$ ….

When A and B are moving in the same direction: $v_{R} = v_{A} - v_{B}$

When A and B are moving in opposite directions: $v_{R} = v_{A} + v_{B}$

Two objects of length $l_{A}$ and $l_{B}$ ….time taken for the objects to cross each other

$t = \frac {l_{A} + l_{B}} {relative speed}$

Two objects A and B moving in opposite directions with speeds $v_{A} and v_{B}$ , after crossing each other take time $t_{A}$ and $t_{B}$ to reach their respective destinations. Then,

$\frac{v_{A}}{v_{B}} = \sqrt{\frac{t_{B}}{t_{A}}}$

If a train covers a certain distance at average speed ‘u’, without stopping and covers the same distance at average speed ‘v’ with stopping, then the time spent at the stop ‘t’ is given by

$t = \frac{v-u}{max(u, v)}$

Questions

Find the time taken by a train 150 m long running at 54 kmph in crossing an electric pole (assume width of the pole is negligible)
1. 10 sec
2. 15 sec
3. 20 sec
4. 17 sec
A man standing on a 150 m long bridge finds that a train crosses the bridge in 19 sec and crosses himself in 9 sec. What is the speed of the train?
1. 50 kmph
2. 45 kmph
3. 54 kmph
4. 8 kmph
Two trains travel in the same direction at speeds of 36 kmph and 54 kmph. The faster train overtakes the slower in 60 sec. What is the length of either train, if both trains are equally long?
1. 100 m
2. 160 m
3. 300 m
4. 150 m
A train travels a certain distance making three stops of 20 min each. The overall speed of the train comes to 40 kmph. Without stopping, the speed is 45 kmph. How much distance did the train travel?
1. 180 km
2. 360 km
3. 90 km
4. 300 km
Two stations A and B are 125 km apart. A train starts from A at 07:00 hrs and travels towards B at 10 kmph. Another train starts from B at 08:00 hrs and travels towards A at 15 kmph. At what time will they cross each other?
1. 10:00 hrs
2. 12 3/5 hrs
3. 11:00 hrs
4. 09:00 hrs

Sample Questions For IAS - MENTAL ABILITY

3:03 AM akhilesh No comments

STREAMS AND BOATS

Assume speed of a boat is $u$ kmph and speed of a stream is $v$ kmph
Then speed of the boat downsteam $r = u + v$ . Speed of the boat upstream $r = u - v$

PIPES AND CISTERNS

If one pipe can fill a tank in $t_1$ minutes and another can fill it in $t_2$ minutes, then amount of water in one minute when both pipes are opened

$Q = \frac{1}{t_1} + \frac{1}{t_2}$

Time taken by both pipes to fill the tank $t = \frac{t_1t_2}{t_1+t_2}$

One pipe fills a cistern in $t_1$ minutes and another empties it in $t_2$ minutes. When both pipes are opened, amount of water in the cistern in one minute

$Q = \frac{1}{t_1} - \frac{1}{t_2}$

Time taken to fill the cistern $t = \frac{t_1t_2}{t_2-t_1}$

PROFIT AND LOSS

$Profit prct = \frac{profit}{cost price} 100$
$Loss prct = \frac{loss}{cost price} 100$
$Sale price = \frac{100 + profit}{100} CP$
$Cost price = \frac{100}{100 + profit}SP$
If a person sells $n_1$ part of his goods at profit $p_1$ % and $n_2$ part of his goods at profit $p_2$ % and the rest at a loss of $l$ %, the net profit or loss is

$Q = \frac{n_1p_1 + n_2p_2 - (rest)l}{n_1+n_2+rest}$

REVIEW QUESTIONS

A boat travels downstream through a distance of 20 km in 1 hr, but takes 2 hrs to travel the same distance upstream. What is the ratio of the speed of the boat to the speed of the current?
1. 3:1
2. 1:3
3. 2:3
4. 3:2
A man can row 3 kmph in still water. If the river is running at 0.5 kmph, it takes him 1 hr to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
1. 1.4 km
2. 1.47 km
3. 1.46 km
4. 1.458 km
A man can row 15 kmph in still water. It takes him twice as long to row up the river as it takes him to row down the river. Find the speed of the stream.
1. 15 kmph
2. 10 kmph
3. 8 kmph
4. 5 kmph
A stream has a current 2 kmph. A boat goes 10 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 55 min. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
1. 22
2. 23
3. 25
4. 24
A boat takes 6 hrs to go upstream but return in just two hours. If the speed of the current is 2 kmph, what is the speed of the boat?
1. 4 kmph
2. 3 kmph
3. 5 kmph
4. 6 kmph
A pipe can fill a tank in 12 hrs. Due to a leak in the bottom it is filled in 15 hrs. If the tank is full, how much time will it take for the leak to empty it?
1. 30 hrs
2. 60 hrs
3. 1/30 hrs
4. 1/60 hrs
Two pipes can fill a cistern in 4 hrs and 6 hrs respectively. When the pipes are opened simulatenously it is found that due to leakage in the bottom, 36 extra min are taken for the cistern to be filled up. When the cistern is full, in how much time will the leak empty it?
1. 10
2. 1/10
3. 1/12
4. 12
Three pipes A, B, C can independently fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hrs respectively. They were operated simulateneously for 4 hrs and then pipe B is closed. In what extra time would the tank fill up now?
1. 1.6 hrs
2. 1.7 hrs
3. 1.5 hrs
4. 2 hrs
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 mins, 25 mins respectively. If both pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time should B be closed so that the tank fills in 15 min?
1. 1 1/4
2. 3 1/4
3. 5 1/4
4. 6 1/4
If two pipes function simultaneously, a reservoir will be filled in 12 hrs. One pipe fills the reservoir 10 hrs faster than the other. How many hours does it take the second to fill the reservoir?
1. 30 hrs
2. 12
3. 40
4. 3
A man sold a table at a profit of 15%. Had he bought it at 10% less and sold for Rs 21 less, he would have gained 25%. What is the cost price of the table?
1. Rs 800
2. Rs 840
3. Rs 420
4. Rs 1000
A girl sold 4/5th of her articles at a gain of 50% and the rest at par. Find her net loss or gain percent.
1. 10
2. 15
3. 17
4. 24
A man buys 5kg of apples for Rs 30 and sells at 3 kg for Rs 45. To gain Rs 180, how many kg must he sell?
1. 15 kg
2. 20 kg
3. 25 kg
4. 18 kg
A man has a gain of 25% when he sells a table at a certain price. If he had sold it at double the price, what would the gain percent have been?
1. 120
2. 140
3. 130
4. 150
A merchant sells a cloth at a 10% loss. He uses a duplicate scale and gains 15%. Find the false length of the scale. (Assume original measure 100 cm)
1. 78.25 cm
2. 78 cm
3. 77.5 cm
4. 91.5 cm

Sample Questions For IAS - PROBLEMS ON WORK, PERCENTAGES AND AGE

3:02 AM akhilesh No comments

‘A’ alone completes a job in 12 days while ‘B’ alone completes the job in 24 days. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ work together, how many days would it take to complete the job?
1. 6
2. 8
3. 7
4. 24
10 men can complete a job in 18 days. After 6 days, 5 more men joined. In how many days would the remaining work be completed?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 2
4. 15
A man works twice as fast as a woman and a woman works twice as fast as a child. If 16 men can complete a job in 12 days, how many would be required for 32 women and 64 boys together to complete the same job?
1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 10
A contractor undertakes to complete a job in 60 days and employs 90 persons for the purpose. After 45 days he takes a review and finds that 90% of the work is over. In order to finish the job in 60 days, how many persons should he now remove from the job?
1. 40
2. 20
3. 30
4. 60
25 men take 20 days to complete a certain job. 15 men left the work after some days. If the remaining work was completed in 37.5 days, after how many days did the 15 men leave the work?
1. 5
2. 35
3. 7
4. 6
In a competetive exam 10000 boys and 12000 girls appeared. If 26% of boys and 15% of girls could qualify, what is the overall % of students who could not qualify?
1. 80
2. 40
3. 60
4. 70
At an election contested by two candidates, the loser loses by a 20% margin equivalent to 20000 votes. If the polling was only 50% of the total eligible number, how many people were eligible for casting their votes?
1. 100000
2. 200000
3. 300000
4. 40000
Of the total amount received by Kiran 10% was spent on purchases and 5% of the remaining on transportation. If he is left with 1400, the initial amount was
1. 1637
2. 1637.5
3. 1637.43
4. 1638
In an exam, 60% failed in the GK test and 40% failed in quantitative aptitude test. 15% failed in both tests. What percent passed both tests?
1. 10%
2. 17%
3. 15%
4. 20%
A solution of 70 L of wine and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make the water 12.5% of the resulting solution?
1. 5
2. 3
3. 4
4. 2
The ratio of ages of a mother to her daughter today is 7:3. After 5 years, this ratio would be 2:1. How old was the mother at the time of birth of the daughter?
1. 18
2. 21
3. 22
4. 20
The average age of a class of 50 students is 24 years. If the average age of 10 of them is 22, while the average age of another 10 is 26, what is the average age of the remaining 30 students?
1. 22 years
2. 32
3. 24
4. 42
The average age of a class of 27 students is 10 years. The average increases by 1 if the teachers age is included. What is the age of the teacher?
1. 35
2. 36
3. 38
4. 37
The sum of ages of a father and his son is 56. If they both live until the son is as old as the father is at present, their ages together will then be 96. Find the present age of the father.
1. 48 years
2. 37
3. 28
4. 38
My brother is 6 years younger than me. If after 7 years our ages will be in the ratio 8:7, what is my brother’s age now?
1. 35
2. 25
3. 30
4. 40

Sample Questions For IAS

2:58 AM akhilesh No comments

The price of sugar is being raised by 10%. By how much percent must a man reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure
1. 9%
2. 9.5%
3. 10%
4. 9 1/11%
Let the original price be Rs. 100 and the original quantity of x
Then the quantity consumed is
Let the new price be Rs 110
Then the man must reduce consumption by:
If a man loses 4% by selling bananas at Rs 12 a rupee, how many per rupee must he sell them so as to gain 44%?
1. 8
2. 7
3. 6
4. 9
The sale price of one banana is
Using the formula:
Then
I have a certain sum of money to be distributed among certain no. of boys. If I give Rs 3 to each, I shall spend Rs 4 less but if Rs 5 to each, I shall need Rs 6 more. How much do I have with me?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 20
4. 23
Let the number of boys be and the amount I have be

This gives and
I multiply a number by 36 and divide the result by 12. The quotient is 374181. What is the number?
1. 124772
2. 124727
3. 134727
4. 174232
Let the number be x
According to the problem,
This gives
Three bells toll at intervals of 1.2, 1.8 and 2.7 seconds beginning together. How often will each bell toll before their tolling together again?
1. 9, 4, 6
2. 8, 6, 4
3. 7, 6, 4
4. 10, 2, 3
The bells will toll together again at the LCM of the three intervals.
The LCM of 1.2, 1.8 and 2.7 is 10.8 sec
Between the beginning and 10.8 sec, each bell will toll the following number of times:
and and
How many revolutions will be made by a wheel which revolves at the rate of 243 revolutions in 3 minutes, while another wheel revolving 374 times in 11 minutes makes 544 revolutions?
1. 1269
2. 1270
3. 1296
4. 1297
For the second wheel, the time taken for one revolution is
The total time taken by the second wheel is
For the first wheel, the number of revolutions in one minute is
In this same time, the first wheel makes the following number of revolutions:
The digits in the units place and lakh’s place in a number are 3 and 8. What will be the digits in the same places in the remainder when 99999 is subtracted from the number
1. (4,6)
2. (4,5)
3. (7,4)
4. (4,7)
Let the number be 80003
When 99999 is subtracted from this number, the digits will be (7,4)
A ship 40 miles from shore springs a leak which admits 3 3/4 tons of water in 12 minutes. 60 tons of water are enough to sink the ship. But the ship’s pumps can throw out 12 tons of water in an hour. What should the average speed of the ship be so that it reaches the shore before sinking?
1. 4 mph
2. 4.5 mph
3. 4.7 mph
4. 7 mph
Amount of water entering the ship in one hour: tons
Amount of water thrown out in one hour: 12 tons
Water accumulating in the ship in one hour =
Time taken to accumulate 60 tons: hours
Speed for safe arrival:
An express train owing to a defect in the engine goes at 5/8 th of its usual speed and arrives at 6:49 p.m. instead of 5:55 p.m. At what hour did the train start?
1. 4:25
2. 4:30
3. 4:50
4. 4:55
The new speed = 5/8 of usual speed
If the usual time taken is , the new time is
Then,
This gives
Thus, the starting time is
A train starts with a certain number of passengers. At the first station, it drops 1/3 of those and takes 20 more. At the next it drops 1/2 of the new total and takes on 10 more. On reaching the third station there are 60 left. With how many passengers did the train start?
1. 110
2. 120
3. 125
4. 130
Let the original number of passengers be x
Then, the number of passengers after the first station is:
After the second station,
The number of passengers reaching the third station is given to be 60 i.e.
This gives,

This gives,